Answer #51
Three possible hands are given for South but only one is consistent with bidding. Which one? What should the other iands have bid? Neither side is vulnerable
North |
|
East |
|
South |
|
West |
1 ♠
2 ♥ |
|
Pass
Pass |
|
1NT
2 ♠ |
|
Pass |
Hand a) |
♠ Q 4 2
♥ 3 2
♦ K J 7 3 2
♣ J 6 3 |
|
Hand b) |
♠ J 4
♥ Q 8 7
♦ A 10 8 2
♣ J 9 4 2 |
|
Hand c) |
♠ Q 9 2
♥ J 9 2
♦ A K 3 2
♣ 9 4 2 |
Answer:
(b) is correct.
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With Hand (a), you are better raising 1♠ to 2♠ straight away rather than responding 1NT. You would only respond 1NT with three cards in the major if they were three small cards in a very flat hand.
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With Hand (c), you are good enough, ten points, to respond 2♦. Your 1NT response was wrong.
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Hand (b) is correct. Your 2♠ is a preference bid, not a support bid, typically with a doubleton. There are two good reasons for preferring 2♠ to passing 2♥ (i) a 5-2 fit is easier to declare than a 4-3 fit; (ii) bidding (rather than passing) gives partner another bid, should partner have a good hand.