Answer 55
Three possible hands are given for South but only one is consistent with bidding. Which one? What should the other iands have bid? Neither side is vulnerable
North |
|
East |
|
South |
|
West |
2 ♣ |
|
3 ♠ |
|
4 ♣ |
|
1♠ |
Hand a) |
♠ Q J
♥ Q 6 5 2
♦ A J 2
♣ 9 8 3 2 |
|
Hand b) |
♠ 2
♥ 9 7
♦ Q J 6 4 3 2
♣ K J 10 8 |
|
Hand c) |
♠ 2
♥ 9 8 3 2
♦ Q 6 4 3 2
♣ A Q 10 |
Answer:
(c) is correct.
-
What’s the point of bidding 4 ♣ with Hand (a)? You don’t really want partner bidding 5 ♣ over 4♠ and you certainly don’t want to encourage partner to lead a club v 4♠. Just pass.
-
Hand (b) is very offensive. So much so, that you should jump to 5♣. If partner is using the Suit Quality Overcall Test (number of clubs plus number of club honours reaching the eight tricks he’s bid for) he must have six+ cards (for he can have at most two honours); you love your shape, you hate your defence. Don’t bid 4♣, then (over 4♠) 5 ♣ - the dreaded two bites of the cherry. Who knows, your immediate jump to 5 ♣ may elicit a 5♠ bid – which may be a level too high.
-
That leaves Hand (c), the correct answer. You love your singleton spade and will not mind if partner bids on to 5♣ over 4♠. However, the main reason for bidding 4♣ is to make sure partner leads a club (from an otherwise attractive ♣KJxxxx or similar) v 4♠.