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Answer #66

Three possible hands are given for South but only one is consistent with the bidding. Which one? What should the other hands have bid? Neither side is vulnerable

North		East		South		West
-- 4NT		-- P		1NT 6NT		P

Hand a)

♠ A J 2
♥ A J 6 3
♦ Q 3 2
♣ J 6 3

Hand b)

♠ A J 10 8
♥ K Q 9
♦ 10 9 2
♣ Q J 9

Hand c)

♠ 8 7 2
♥ A J 5 3
♦ A K 5 2
♣ Q 2

Answer:
(b) is correct.

Partner’s 4NT is a quantitative (invitational) try for 6NT, not ace-asking after notrumps. Hand (b) is a very solid-looking 13-point hand, look at those intermediate-rich sequences – you should jump to 6NT.
Hand (a) on the other hand is a very barren 13 and you should pass 4NT.
Hand (c) is maximum but it would be precipitate to jump to 6NT. Your lack of intermediate cards (notrumpy) strongly suggest that if there is a 4-4 fit in either hearts or diamonds (more likely diamonds – partner did not use Stayman), 6♦(♥) will play better. The expert bid is 5NT, accepting the slam try but asking partner to bid four-card suits up the line, ie “pick a slam”. If he has, say, ♠AQx, ♥Kxx, ♦QJxx, ♣AKx, you’ll find the superior 6♦ slam.

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Answer #66